X hired Y to renovate his shop for a certain amount. There is a contract between X and Y which specify which items will be renovated and how much will be paid. However halfway during the renovations, Y refused to finish the job unless X pays him an additional amount. At first X did not want to do so, however, he later agreed as he had no other choice. X and Y later signed a deed under seal.
Is the deed under seal still valid even though there was some duress?
Thank you so much for your reply.
Is there a contract between X and Y for the respective work (there should have been one)? If so, what does the contract say? This is a matter between two businesses. Consequently, both parties probably will be considered to be informed and savy with respect business dealings between them. I think X has a tough case. I don’t think Y’s actions rise to the level of duress. Y did not force X to sign the deed. X did not have to sign the deed. X could have come up with money (through a loan or otherwise) to pay Y.
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